HOH 1 newb question.

[imported_turvalon]

On page 135... I am confused as to where the calculations are coming from.

1. He Holds a High Pair: 50% times 92% = 46%
2. He Holds Trips: 40% times 10% = 4%
3. He's Bluffing: 10% times 97% = 10% (rounded)

I understand where he gets the 50%, 40%, 10% as well as the results but what confuses me is where the 92%, 10%, and 97% come from.

I was thinking maybe it was from page 126 which are preflop winning probabilities but the first one stats that a high pair over low pair wins 86% of the time. So, I am lost as to where this number came from.

Is the 10% in number 2, the percent that you will hit your own set to win?
And the 97% the chance that you will win against the bluff mentioned?

Please be gentle, just trying to learn. Also, is this the right forum for this?

[davelin]

[ QUOTE ]
I was thinking maybe it was from page 126 which are preflop winning probabilities but the first one stats that a high pair over low pair wins 86% of the time. So, I am lost as to where this number came from.

[/ QUOTE ]

Page 126 talks about pre-flop percentages after both players go all-in. In the scenario you're talking about, the flop has already been dealt so the percentages change.

[R_Ellender]

Those percentages you're talking about are the chances that his hand will hold up against the hand he is talking about.

Against a high pair, he is a 92% favorite to win. Against trips, he is only 10% to win, etc.

Pretty much, Harrington is multiplying the chances of his opponent having a certain hand by the chances of him beating that hand.

[imported_turvalon]

Thanks for clearing that up fellows... on a side note. Can anyone point me to a chart with those percentages for post-flop like the pre-flop chart he has so that I can learn those?

I tried searching for one but I have been unsuccessful.