50NL: Did I make the right move?

can someone help me understand why his flop bet is incorrect? why wouldn't he want K J to call his post flop bet? even with a pot size bet, a flush draw still would have the odds to call. is it simply because there are still two others in the hand? even taking into consideration the implied odds, the op was able to lay down his hand after the turned Q.

[BlackRain]

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can someone help me understand why his flop bet is incorrect? why wouldn't he want K J to call his post flop bet? even with a pot size bet, a flush draw still would have the odds to call. is it simply because there are still two others in the hand? even taking into consideration the implied odds, the op was able to lay down his hand after the turned Q.

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His flop bet is incorrect because you want to make it as incorrect as possible for people to draw out on you. So yes, you do want KJ to call, yes you do want a flush draw to call. But it is preferable to make them call with 2 to 1 pot odds rather than the 2.65 to 1 that OP was laying any individual caller. A flush draw actually isn't correct to call even with OP's bet but may be able to make up for that in implied odds. It is much harder to mathematically bridge this gap when you are staring at a pot sized bet. The math of course changes if two or three people have already called the bet in front of you. But the rule of thumb is, charge them the maximum with what appears to be the best hand right now.

"When people play incorrectly if they knew what you had, you gain." I am paraphrasing/quoting Theory of Poker by David Sklansky here.

[xcrack999]

I think it's close. The pot is giving you good odds, and you only have to be win 35% of the time. I would feel better about calling if you had bet more on the flop, which would make KJ unlikely.