anyone know how to calculate standard deviation?

HonchoOverload · #1 11-14-2005, 10:58 PM

I know the formula, I'm just not quite sure what to plug in to make it relevant to poker stats.

bluefeet · #2 11-14-2005, 11:06 PM

If it's to check fun things like OOTM/ITM runs, ROI swings and the like. Check out rvg72's
handy simulator thingy

citanul · #3 11-14-2005, 11:28 PM

[ QUOTE ]
I know the formula, I'm just not quite sure what to plug in to make it relevant to poker stats.

[/ QUOTE ]

i have no pictures of bunnies.

to find the standard deviation of something, you plug in the numbers you would expect. to make it "relevant" to poker stats, you plug in the numbers for that stat. it's mostly worthless though. you should really, really, really not worry about it, and if you are going to worry about it, get a free tool that does all your stats including teh stupid ones.

c

HonchoOverload · #4 11-15-2005, 01:36 AM

Let me tell you what I'm trying to do. I need to calculate the SD because all the automated tools deal with 9 handed/10 handed sngs, and I play 6 handed where only 2 get paid. I want to know how much 3 less people cuts down the variance.

splashpot · #5 11-15-2005, 01:39 AM

[ QUOTE ]
Let me tell you what I'm trying to do. I need to calculate the SD because all the automated tools deal with 9 handed/10 handed sngs, and I play 6 handed where only 2 get paid. I want to know how much 3 less people cuts down the variance.

[/ QUOTE ]
It's still 33% get paid. I don't see how it would change at all from 9 man games.

Not taking into consideration difference in 1-2 payout.

HonchoOverload · #6 11-15-2005, 01:44 AM

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Let me tell you what I'm trying to do. I need to calculate the SD because all the automated tools deal with 9 handed/10 handed sngs, and I play 6 handed where only 2 get paid. I want to know how much 3 less people cuts down the variance.

[/ QUOTE ]
It's still 33% get paid. I don't see how it would change at all from 9 man games.

Not taking into consideration difference in 1-2 payout.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yeah the payout is the same, but the variance is different and I want to know how much, because I want to know how many tourneys give me a relevant data set.

In the FAQ, one of the mods stated that 500-1000 tourneys is good in terms of predicting a baseline for ROI and such. Is the same true for 6-handed? I would think it would be less because less people playing means less variance....can I just chop it by a third or is it more complicated?

Also, in the example in the FAQ the mod threw out an SD of 19. Is that arbitrary?

Shillx · #7 11-15-2005, 01:45 AM

Post deleted by Shillx

HonchoOverload · #8 11-15-2005, 01:47 AM

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Okay lets say that you are a losing player. You finish in all places in equal amounts and your ROI is -9.09%. Your SD would be 1.38 buyins/game and that is lower then it would be as a -9.09% ROI in a 10 man SNG. If you finish in each spot equally in a full SNG, your SD would be 1.52 buyins/game.

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Thanks, but can you walk me through exactly how you calculated that?

splashpot · #9 11-15-2005, 01:52 AM

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Let me tell you what I'm trying to do. I need to calculate the SD because all the automated tools deal with 9 handed/10 handed sngs, and I play 6 handed where only 2 get paid. I want to know how much 3 less people cuts down the variance.

[/ QUOTE ]
It's still 33% get paid. I don't see how it would change at all from 9 man games.

Not taking into consideration difference in 1-2 payout.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yeah the payout is the same, but the variance is different and I want to know how much, because I want to know how many tourneys give me a relevant data set.

In the FAQ, one of the mods stated that 500-1000 tourneys is good in terms of predicting a baseline for ROI and such. Is the same true for 6-handed? I would think it would be less because less people playing means less variance....can I just chop it by a third or is it more complicated?

Also, in the example in the FAQ the mod threw out an SD of 19. Is that arbitrary?

[/ QUOTE ]
Why would the variance be different if you get ITM the same % of the time? Why does fewer people mean lower variance?

HonchoOverload · #10 11-15-2005, 01:55 AM

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Let me tell you what I'm trying to do. I need to calculate the SD because all the automated tools deal with 9 handed/10 handed sngs, and I play 6 handed where only 2 get paid. I want to know how much 3 less people cuts down the variance.

[/ QUOTE ]
It's still 33% get paid. I don't see how it would change at all from 9 man games.

Not taking into consideration difference in 1-2 payout.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yeah the payout is the same, but the variance is different and I want to know how much, because I want to know how many tourneys give me a relevant data set.

In the FAQ, one of the mods stated that 500-1000 tourneys is good in terms of predicting a baseline for ROI and such. Is the same true for 6-handed? I would think it would be less because less people playing means less variance....can I just chop it by a third or is it more complicated?

Also, in the example in the FAQ the mod threw out an SD of 19. Is that arbitrary?

[/ QUOTE ]
Why would the variance be different if you get ITM the same % of the time? Why does fewer people mean lower variance?

[/ QUOTE ]

Variance has nothing to do with % of people getting paid out. Since there are three more places I can finish in, that jacks up the variance. More possibilities, more variance.