Hello! Any mathematical reason why the following statement is..

[SittingBull]

generally correct or incorrect: Playing in a full game of 7 card stud high(8 players) after 4 players have folded on 3rd Str.is similar to playing in a 4 handed game.
What do u think?
Just wondering
[img]/images/graemlins/shocked.gif[/img]SittingBull

[Precision1C]

If you ignore the offset for the remaining hands being very slightly better because 3 hands folded the situations are nearly identical in games with blinds, hold'em and omaha, as long as there aren't any antes. However, in stud the situation is very different since all seven players anted making the pot odds for a steal much more attractive than if only 4 players anted.

[d10]

In holdem or Omaha I would say this is correct, but due to antes in 7stud, as well as the fact that 4 players folded=4 dead cards that you have seen I would disagree here.

[GFunk911]

[ QUOTE ]
In holdem or Omaha I would say this is correct, but due to antes in 7stud, as well as the fact that 4 players folded=4 dead cards that you have seen I would disagree here.

[/ QUOTE ]

What he said, the antes.

[SossMan]

you can play stud w/ 8 players? what happens in a family pot played all the way?

[Jacob_Gilliam]

The last card is a community card.

[SossMan]

more importantly, where the F have you been, sittingbull?