200 from 200 then 200 at 200

[Texas Pete]

I'm going to write down 200 lessons I learn from watching $200 SNGs. Then I'm going to play 200 of them. I am currently playing the $30's.

[Daliman]

I'll give you your first 2, which you likely already know;

#1 Play ultra tight first 2 levels.

#2 Call almost any raise from a single player allin giving you 2-1 pot odds if less than 1/3rd of your stack with any 2 cards.

[doggin]

What is so significant about the magical 2 to 1 odds.
I've noticed on the WPT, Mike Sexton will always say,
"I tell you Vince, he's getting 2 to 1 for a call, I don't
see how he cannot call it", even if the guy has junk!

[WarDekar]

Because with 2 to 1 pot odds, any rag hand has 1/3 of a chance to win the pot (depending on the other hand, but the few times it's down more than that is made up for the other vast majority of the time that it isn't down near that much).

[ilya]

[ QUOTE ]
Because with 2 to 1 pot odds, any rag hand has 1/3 of a chance to win the pot (depending on the other hand, but the few times it's down more than that is made up for the other vast majority of the time that it isn't down near that much).

[/ QUOTE ]

Umm, pot odds don't affect the chance that a hand will win.

[niin]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Because with 2 to 1 pot odds, any rag hand has 1/3 of a chance to win the pot (depending on the other hand, but the few times it's down more than that is made up for the other vast majority of the time that it isn't down near that much).

[/ QUOTE ]

Umm, pot odds don't affect the chance that a hand will win.

[/ QUOTE ]

I'm pretty sure he meant that most rag hands will have a 1/3rd chance to win a hand pre-flop, and with 2:1 odds it's about an even money prospect. He didn't mean that the 2:1 pot odds makes the hand win 1/3rd of the time.

But in most cases, that's true. Unless you're dominated, overs against unders comes in around 65/35 to 60/40, which is better than 2:1 odds

[revots33]

[ QUOTE ]
#2 Call almost any raise from a single player allin giving you 2-1 pot odds if less than 1/3rd of your stack with any 2 cards.

[/ QUOTE ]

Question about this:

I have $5200 in chips, currently in 1st place. A player goes all-in for 1500 after the flop of J-J-8, making $3400 in the pot. Other players fold to me. I have 9-4 offsuit (I saw flop for free as the BB when other players limped). I am supposed to call this?

[wulfheir]

I think daliman is talking about PF.

[revots33]

Oh ok sorry, if it's pre-flop it makes more sense. I'd still have trouble risking almost 1/3 my stack PF with a hand like 9-4 tho. I'd rather the small stack win a small pot then double-up through me. I'm sure I'm wrong, which is probably why I'll never get past the $11 SNGs! [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

[se2schul]

[ QUOTE ]
I'd still have trouble risking almost 1/3 my stack PF with a hand like 9-4 tho.

[/ QUOTE ]

I recently started applying this rule with good results. I found that because you are calling less than 1/3 of your stack, you usually aren't much different than before. I've also managed to suck out quite a few hands where I was clearly the dog. When that happenned, I think people at the table started thinking that I was a loose/reckless player may mean called when raising with by far the best of it later on. You'll often lose with this move, but the math doesn't lie... it's clearly a +EV move.

This has fixed a leak in my game.
What I have been doing though, is being selective about when to apply this rule. There were a couple situations on the bubble that I encountered where I was more comfortable folding to let someone with 1-1.5 BB's bust out in the next hand. I'm not sure if it's right to fold in such a situation though...

Steve