T.O.P. is wrong -

[rayrns]

or am I? In the chapter on the theorem of poker. No limit holdem. Player A:Hero (straight), Player Brawer(2 pair) and Player C: All Inner.
A: Bets $50
B: Calls $50
C: Raises $250 (all in) Pot now $350
A: Calls Pot now $550
In the book it says the pot is now $700 and A: doesn't raise, so as to keep B:in as B:is only getting 7-2 to draw to his 10-1 shot. (I have B: getting 2.75-1 at this time)
Two things here. First, do you not want to punish a player on a draw? Second, if I give him better odds to draw to, won't he take it?)
If A: was to raise $200 and make the pot $750, B: would still not be getting 10-1 on his draw but his odds would go up to 3.75-1. Therefore I am actually enticing him to call (still incorrectly) and punishing his stack at the same time.
I am probably doing something wrong here so blast away, I need to learn.

[Ed Miller]

The point of the example is that two pair will fold to a reraise by A, but will call if A just calls. If that is the case, then A should just call to allow B to make the mistake of calling without proper odds. If A thinks B will call a raise, then of course he should raise.

[polarbear]

If A raises $200, B has to call $400, not $200. B has to call both C's raise and A's reraise.

[rayrns]

Ok. I forgot to add in the extra raise. B would have to call $400 into a $750 pot, making his odds less than what he'd have just having to call the $200 raise.

[rayrns]

I am not used to thinking in "high" limit games. In the lower limits (which is where I play), everyone would call with that. I did figure the odds wrong if A re-reaised and what B would be getting to draw to the FH.

[Nottom]

You math here is a bit shaky. If you raise, the player will get worse odds, not better.

No raise: C is getting 700:200 or 3.5:1 on his call

If A raised 200: C is getting 900:400 or 2.25:1 on his call.