IMPLIED ODDS QUESTION

[papilindo]

How do I calculate them in NL? I recently switched from LHE where it was a simple calculation to arrive at w/ some variance due to potential 2 and 3 betting etc. I'm thinking it's not even possible in NL due to potential all-in's. I could really use some help on this as it's screwing with my head a little. thanx in advance

[papilindo]

I guess I'll have to post this in another forum as people are too busy discussing all the social aspects of poker.

[Str8Fish]

my understanding is that calculating the implied odds of NL is nearly impossible due to the potential error. Anyone at any time could go all in so the range of what the implied odds is too tremendous to be accurate.

[EStreet20]

Tough one. I play limit for cash games but I still think Implied odds can be used to your advantage in NL. However, in NL your implied odds refer solely to the action you'll get on later streets. Thus, in NL you have to take a few more factors into account.

For example, let's say you have a draw, be it a flush draw on an OESD on the flop. If a player in front of you puts in a bet and you think it may be raised/all-in etc behind you, then you cannot justfify calling to hit your draw and collect bets on the next street because you know you'll have to pay big money to get there. IE your implied odds are insufficient for a call. However, say the player directly to your left bets and it's not raised at any point. Thus, your call, if you make it, closes the betting Now you can calculate your immediate odds, and also factor in your implied odds based on the money you'll make if you hit your draw. This is where player specific reads are also a little more valuable in NL as you know that if you have a read that a player has a strong hand, say top two pair, and is incapable of releasing such hand then you know you'll get a big payoff (most likely all of his/her chips) when your draw comes in on the next street. Overall, I think that while it is a lot harder to calculate implied odds in NL, you still can but you have to look at it more in the context of factors such as position, and putting a player on a hand and a playing style.

Good luck,
Matt

[binions]

[ QUOTE ]
How do I calculate them in NL? I recently switched from LHE where it was a simple calculation to arrive at w/ some variance due to potential 2 and 3 betting etc. I'm thinking it's not even possible in NL due to potential all-in's. I could really use some help on this as it's screwing with my head a little. thanx in advance

[/ QUOTE ]

Easy. Let's say someone bets the pot on the flop. Let's assume the pot had $100 in it, and someone bets $100. So, it's $100 to call, and pot has $200 in it (2:1 odds).

Implied odds is how much you can win that's not in the pot. Meaning how much is in the smallest stack left playing.

Imagine in the example above that the other guy had $1000 more, but you only had $100 left if you make the call.

Well, your implied odds are 3:1 since for your $100 call, you can win $200 from the pot and an extra $100 later if you hit your hand.

Same thing if you had $1000 but he had $100 left after his bet.

Bottom line, add the $$ left from the smallest stack to the pot, and divide by the call you are facing, to get implied odds.

[papa_georgio]

"Bottom line, add the $$ left from the smallest stack to the pot, and divide by the call you are facing, to get implied odds"

Are you counting on the fact that because they are shortest stack they will be going all in?