once the cards are shuffled, arent the odds just the same

[Terry]

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thread should have ended here

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Right. No sense trying to help people learn or understand why ... nobody wants to hear that crap.

Actually I think the thread has only one useless post – yours.

[Raydain]

I believe the poster already knew why and just wanted to be reassured. It does not help to say random = random.

[YouGotBluffed]

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So regarding our question:

The odds are 2703 to 1 against. (52*52)-1

The probability (or chance) it will happen is 0.000369822 or 0.0369822%. (1/(52*52))

These both mean the same thing but stating it as odds appears to make the answer clearer in this case.

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Ok, so you'd have to pick a card from the deck 30,000 times before you pulled out the same one twice. [img]/images/graemlins/tongue.gif[/img]

[Terry]

If you’re serious about the 30,000 you’re still not getting it.

You will pick the same card twice once out of 2704 tries.

[jason_t]

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It’s not 3,000,000 to 1 ... not even close ... that is why the terminology is important in understanding the concept.

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How is it not? I think you're misunderstanding. The words proability and odds are interchangable, at least for this situation.


"The odds of pulling the same card from the deck twice in a row is three million to one" means the same as "The proability of pulling the same card from the deck twice in a row is three million to one."


Or, like I already said, you'd have to pull out a card three million times before you pulled the same card out twice in a row.

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This last paragraph is wrong. That is not what probability means.