Can anyone actually get away from this hand???

[BlackAces]

What a great and useful thread:

- Poster makes a post about a hand designed to elicit only the response he wants.
- Poster argues with people who don't give him the feedback he wants.
- Poster waits for posts agreeing with his analysis.
- Poster thanks everyone who agreed with what he already thought.

What a bastion of thoughtful discussion.

[Fat Nicky]

Dude, don't be pissed because people disagreed with you and called you weak-tight.

[ QUOTE ]
Poster makes a post about a hand designed to elicit only the response he wants.

[/ QUOTE ]

Yep, people responded the way they did only because of the subject line of the post.

[ QUOTE ]
- Poster argues with people who don't give him the feedback he wants.

[/ QUOTE ]

I didn't agree or disagree with you, I posted my response to your comments with my reasoning for playing the hand that I did after you dissented.

[ QUOTE ]
- Poster thanks everyone who agreed with what he already thought.


[/ QUOTE ]

I thanked everyone, even you sir, who disagreed.

[hurlyburly]

Ok, I think I figured it out:

10 ppl = 20 cards; 20/52= ~38% of the deck
5/20 = 25%; # cards for each suit for a 25% chance of catching any particular suit
6.25% = # of times you get 2 cards of the same suit.

This is where I get lost. Now there are 3/18 cards left in the suit you have, giving a second person a 2.77% chance of having a hand of the same suit. Now since we don't take 2 off the top, how do the numbers work together to determine the chance of both people getting suited hands of the same suit? Averaging it? Average is 4.51% so I guess it's safe to assume that ~1/20 times I get a suited hands, someone else has a same suited hand? Then since I'm queen high, I fear 2 over cards, so is it (2/13)*(1/20) for a .7% chance that I'm dominated?

That seems both overly simple and wrong, so I'd sure like some help here. If that's the case, then i'm not playing my weak flushes strong enough.