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  #1  
Old 12-21-2005, 02:58 PM
illegit illegit is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2005
Posts: 217
Default Re: all in or stop and go?

[ QUOTE ]
There's no way on earth I am using the stop and go in this spot, considering the wide range he could have. Give me a lower pp like 66 or a hand like A9 before I think stop and go.

[/ QUOTE ]
Agreed. A stop and go here gets too many correct folds out of him on the flop, and too many correct calls as well. A push preflop gets some correct calls by him (overs) but lots of bad ones too (Ax, smaller pair, etc.). I'm not as concerned with fold equity here as much as I am about doubling through.
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  #2  
Old 12-21-2005, 03:09 PM
locutus2002 locutus2002 is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2005
Posts: 469
Default Re: all in or stop and go?

If you are ahead of his range you shouldn't consider a stop n go.

Stop n go is useful when:
1) you have no FE BTF but may have some ATF and
2) you are not ahead of his range

small pairs are best.
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  #3  
Old 12-21-2005, 09:18 PM
gergery gergery is offline
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Join Date: May 2004
Location: SF Bay Area (eastbay)
Posts: 719
Default Re: all in or stop and go?

I'm all in here. TT is too big a hand to stopngo and lets him get away too cheaply from a wide range of hands that would call here, including lower pairs, lower connectors, Qx/Kx/Ax where x is lower than T.

-g
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  #4  
Old 12-21-2005, 09:37 PM
mlagoo mlagoo is offline
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Posts: 811
Default Re: all in or stop and go?

i'm pretty sure this could all be solved with math, but im not very good at math [img]/images/graemlins/blush.gif[/img]

it would look something like...

(1) if we stop and go
(a) x1% of the time, villian pairs an overcard on the flop and we get it allin drawing to 2 outs.
(b) x2% of the time, villian had an overpair preflop and we get it allin drawing to 2 outs.
(c) x3% of the time, villian "makes a big call" with unpaired overcards and we get it allin with villian drawing to 6 outs.
(d) x4% of the time, villian "makes a big call" with an underpair and we get it allin with villian drawing to 2 or 5 outs.
(e) x5% of the time, villian does not connect and folds and we take down the 1300 chips in the pot.

(2) if we push preflop
(a) x1% of the time, we get it allin on the good side of a race
(b) x2% of the time, we get it allin as an 80/20 fav.
(c) x3% of the time, we get it allin as a 20/80 dog.
(d) x4% of the time, we get it allin as a ~70/30 fav (i am home for christmas and dont have any of my poker tools with me) against a hand like A8.
(e) x5% of the time, villian picks up some wierd draw on the flop and we get it allin with villian drawing to 8-15 outs twice.
(e) x6% of the time, villian folds and we take down the 900 chips in the pot.

and i think thats everything.

now all that has to be done is to give villian a CO opening range and a preflop and postflop calling range, and crunch numbers. this is where things get a bit fuzzy for me.

considering the situation intuitively, i think its more profitable to push preflop.
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