Two Plus Two Older Archives  

Go Back   Two Plus Two Older Archives > General Gambling > Probability
FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
  #11  
Old 04-28-2003, 08:16 PM
BruceZ BruceZ is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Posts: 1,636
Default Re: Correction - New Answer

73 is what I predicted above from my Kelly analysis. I'm surprised you got a 0.8% risk of ruin though. I have 4.8% for 73, and 1.7% for 69, and those should be accurate. I got a 0.8 risk of ruin for 67. Did you use a bankroll of 201?
Reply With Quote
  #12  
Old 04-29-2003, 02:22 AM
PseudoPserious PseudoPserious is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Oct 2002
Posts: 151
Default Re: Correction - New Answer

Kinda sorta.

I used a BR of 300; it counts a 'bust' whenever the BR drops under 100 (i.e., a bet couldn't be made). So, if you had BR=100.10, you could still play, but BR=99.90 was a bust.

I'll look over the code again tomorrow morning; it's very straight-forward though so I don't know what I coe missing. I ran the full-scale sims 4 times and saw the EV peak at 73 each time (with the correspondingly low risk of ruin), and then the 66-76 sim 2 times and saw it both times. Maybe it is a numerical artifac; I dunno. I could e-mail you the spreadsheet if you like.

PP
Reply With Quote
  #13  
Old 04-29-2003, 10:17 AM
joeg joeg is offline
Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2003
Posts: 54
Default Re: Correction - New Answer

On the other forum they the answer was got by using the following formula,

Expected return = Average number of flips * average profit per flip

this is mathematicaly equivalent to the way you worked it out, except there they overlooked the fact that you couldn't use $300 as your full bankroll. The fact that these to are both equivalent implies that the effect you mention above

</font><blockquote><font class="small">In reply to:</font><hr />
That is, the times we don't go broke, we will actually win more than 100*EV/flip

[/ QUOTE ]

Doesn't actually come into play here because it just doesn't apply to the method given above and they are both logically correct if you neglect the small amount left over when you go bust.

Does anyone know of any way to work out the average amount left over when you go bust in this situation and also can anyone reccomend any good books that deal with this kind of mathematics as I'm a little rusty at the moment.

cheers

joe.
Reply With Quote
Reply


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 06:08 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.