Theory of Poker: Chapters 1-4 Discussion

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Shorthanded large ante game with weak tight players?

[Smokey98]

Actually we are both wrong. If the house is winning 50.001% of the time and the better is betting 120 bets per hours which is $120,000 an hour then the house is winning 50.001% of that which is winning 60,001.20 an hour and the man is winning $59,998.8 per hour. So you subtract the difference and divide 1B by that. So it takes 416,666,666.66 hours which is roughly 47,564.69 years.

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Example 1: The correct play for him if he knew what you had would be to move all in so you would have to fold.

Ex2: Is this a trick question? According to the FT it is correct for him to call. What is most profitable for you in this situation is for him to fold.

[MEbenhoe]

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Ex2: Is this a trick question? According to the FT it is correct for him to call. What is most profitable for you in this situation is for him to fold.

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This is not a trick question. According to the fundamental theorem you both made the correct play. The correct play for you in this situation is to bet because otherwise you give your opponent infinite odds to make his draw. The correct play for your opponent is to call because he has proper odds to make the call. You've both made the correct play here and thus have both gained from your play. The question is how is this possible? There is an explanation for this, but for now I'll let you guys ponder it a little more.

[jdl22]

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Why will a good player experience more bad beats than an average or poor player?


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Good players get the money in as a favorite more often than bad players. That's what makes a good player good. Since a bad beat is defined as losing when you were the favorite you will suffer more if you are good than otherwise.

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Why are you usually not out to win the most pots in a poker game?

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Normally it will cost you too much to chase pots you have little chance to win. If you try to chase too many pots you will lose too much on pots you lose to make up for the money gained in pots you lose.

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What type of game conditions would make this strategy optimal?

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Huge ante games.

[jdl22]

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Why is Mathematical Expectation important to a poker player?

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Because according to the law of large numbers (choose whichever you want) in the long run your earn will converge to expectation.

[jdl22]

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You are playing in a NL Hold Em game. You hold J T . Your opponent holds K Q . The board shows Q 8 7 A . At this point there is $1000 in the pot and you and your opponent both have a stack of $10000 in front of you. The pot is heads up. You bet $1000 on a semi-bluff (it’ll be covered later). According to the Fundamental Theorem of Poker what is your opponents correct play (be precise) and why?

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According to the FTOP his action should be the same as if he could see your cards. That means that there are 44 unseen cards in the deck. Out of those 44 you have the following outs:
9 hearts
3 non heart 9s
2 non heart Ks
for a total of 14 outs. Hence you have odds against of 30:14 or 15:7. He needs to make sure that you don't have odds to call. The pot is currently 2000. He obviously must raise we just need the amount. If he raises x you will be getting 2000+x:x-1000 on your call. To solve for x we need (15/7)(x-1000) = 2000+x. Another way (really just carrying out the first algebraic step) is to multiply the left side by 7 and the right by 15 and set them equal.
15(x-1000) = 7(2000+x)
15x - 15,000 = 14,000 + 7x
8x = 29,000
x = 29,000/8 or 3,625.

So if he raises to more than 3,625 he is forcing you to make a mistake. To maximize his EV he should raise to min(y,3625) where y is the most you would possibly call. If he raises to less than 3625 you are making money by calling. If he raises more he is forcing a mistake by you. Assuming you are following the FTOP after making your semibluff the outcome will be for him to raise to any amount over 3625 and for you to fold.

[Smokey98]

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You are playing in a NL Hold Em game. You hold J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. Your opponent holds K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. The board shows Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 8 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 7 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. At this point there is $1000 in the pot and you and your opponent both have a stack of $10000 in front of you. The pot is heads up. You bet $1000 on a semi-bluff (it’ll be covered later). According to the Fundamental Theorem of Poker what is your opponents correct play (be precise) and why?

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He should raise the pot about 5000 as you are about 3.5/1 dog to hit either the king or a heart, but the pot odds are 1.4/1.

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Another Fundamental Theorem question:

You are playing in a $5/$10 Limit Hold Em game. You have A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]. Your opponent has A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. The board is A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 8 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 2 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. The pot is heads up. You bet $10 into a $45 pot. Your opponent calls. According to the Fundamental Theorem of Poker you both gained from this play. How is that possible?

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Not sure

[jdl22]

You missed some outs.

[Smokey98]

Yes, I did...the 9's. I didn't see that it would make a lower str8.