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#1
11-23-2002, 06:18 PM
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Question??
"Step 1: Calculate the the total # of possible flops
given that only 32 cards remain in the deck- 32*31*30/6 = 4,960" Why divide by 6?? "Step 2: The number of A,x,y or K,x,y flops are 4 (number of Aces and Kings left in the deck)*28*27/2 = 1,512" Why divide by 2?? 
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#2
11-23-2002, 06:58 PM
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Re: Question??
Dividing by 6 prevents you from couting these flops as 6 flops rather than just 1 flop.
5c4c3c 5c3c4c 4c5c3c 4c3c5c 3c5c4c 3c4c5c It does not matter what order the three flop cards come in.
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#3
11-23-2002, 07:06 PM
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Re: Question??
Annie,
In step 1 we don't care about all the possible orderings of the 3 cards on the flop, so we divide by 6 which is the number of ways to order the 3 cards from each flop. 6 = 3 factorial = 3! = 3*2*1 = 6. In step 2, 28*27 counts every possible xy pair twice, so we divide by 2. 2! = 2*1 = 1. Not to confuse you, but another way to do this is to not do this division and count all possible orderings in both cases. In step 1 we would have 32*31*30. In step 2 we would have 4*28*27*3. We multiply by 3 because there are now 3 places the A or K an go. The final ratio is the same.
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