![]() |
#2
|
|||
|
|||
![]()
If U have AKs,then there are 3 A's that are favorable for flopping exactly a pair of A's.
Since U have 2 cards in your hand,there are 50 cards that U do not see. Of the 50 cards, 3 are favorable,so 47 are unfavorable. The odds against hitting exactly a pair of A's is the ratio: unfavorable outcomes:favorable outcomes. For floppong a flush draw. U have two suited cards. So U need two of the remaining 11 suited cards to flop a flush draw. The total # of combinations of flopping 3 cards from 50 remaining unknowns is C(50,3). Of these,there are C(11,2) favorabe outcomes. This is the total # of ways of hitting 2 of your suited cards grom a group of 11 of the same suit. Hence, the probability of flopping a 4-flush is # of favorable outcomes/total # of outcomes. Hence C(11,2)/C(50,3). H [img]/forums/images/icons/laugh.gif[/img] appy pokering,Thunda! |
|
|