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#1
12-19-2005, 01:41 PM
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Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?
That's what I was thinking. The first post was a good read, but it doesn't give a comparative look. Does anyone have any comparative info to help explain why this statement can/should be considered true?
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#2
12-19-2005, 01:46 PM
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Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?
[ QUOTE ]
That's what I was thinking. The first post was a good read, but it doesn't give a comparative look. Does anyone have any comparative info to help explain why this statement can/should be considered true? [/ QUOTE ] El Diablo started a post in High Stakes NL/PL a week or so ago entitled "Variance" that was mostly full of crap, but a few players posted their standard deviations and profits over a few hands. Profit/standard deviation was like 50x higher in NL cash games than in SnGs.
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#3
12-19-2005, 02:02 PM
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Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?
[ QUOTE ]
El Diablo started a post in High Stakes NL/PL a week or so ago entitled "Variance" that was mostly full of crap, but a few players posted their standard deviations and profits over a few hands. Profit/standard deviation was like 50x higher in NL cash games than in SnGs. [/ QUOTE ] Thanks for that. Anyone else interested in the link mentioned can find it here.
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#4
12-19-2005, 02:28 PM
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Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?
[ QUOTE ]
Anyone else interested in the link mentioned can find it here. [/ QUOTE ] There are so many offtopic trashtalk posts in that thread that it makes even a skipperbob post look on topic! [img]/images/graemlins/crazy.gif[/img] Is it always like that over there?
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#5
12-19-2005, 02:25 PM
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Re: Why do SNG\'s have less variance?
[ QUOTE ]
Profit/standard deviation was like 50x higher in NL cash games than in SnGs. [/ QUOTE ] Umm... those were in SD of BB/100, not buyins.
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