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Villain is 27/9. BB is 55/2.6, so I expect him to come along, giving me enough to call the preflop raise.
PokerStars 1/2 Hold'em (10 handed) FTR converter on zerodivide.cx Preflop: Hero is SB with 9[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 9[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. <font color="#666666">3 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises</font>, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, CO calls, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, Hero calls, BB calls. Flop: (8 SB) 5[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(4 players)</font> <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, BB folds, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises</font>, CO folds, <font color="#CC3333">Hero 3-bets</font>, MP1 calls. Villain has a fairly wide range of hands he would have raised with preflop, but only pairs bigger than mine have me beat here. The board shouldn't have helped him, but from his perspective, it might have helped me. He didn't cap, and now I'm stumped. Do I just check/call it down, or assume he had something like AK, now I'm ahead, and keep betting? Even if I'm not ahead, I have outs, so I take another shot. Turn: (7 BB) Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font> <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, MP1 calls. Did my 3-bet on the turn put him into call-down mode with a slightly bigger pair? River: (9 BB) 2[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font> <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, MP1 calls. Final Pot: 11 BB |
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