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I've been fuming about this one for a while now...
Down to 4 players in a SNG... I'm dealt 9[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]9[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] in the BB. One caller...I raise it up 4x BB. Villain calls. Flop: K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Villain bets $200 into a $1000 pot. I re-raise 3x. Villain calls. Turn: 10[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] Villain goes all in for remaining $1200. I was big stack but this would cripple me if I called and lost. Hero goes into tank and folds. Villain shows cards and shows that he only had 4 diamonds...no pair. So, based on the bets, I could see villain wasn't representing the K so I felt comfortable about that. I felt I re-raised villain out of the flush draw on the flop...but he called anyway. What clues would you guys have picked up on to be able to make that call? Or even knowing the fact that he didnt have anything, over the long run, is it a good laydown? Thanks. |
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