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Old 10-22-2005, 02:56 AM
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Default PP 40K Guaranteed hand

Alright peeps. My stack: 65k. Villain's stack: 65k. Villain and I have had a couple encounters over the last 1/2 hour or so. When I am in the CO seat, he is in the BB. Previously, I rose his bb to 5500 with QT he called, flop comes jack high, he minibets, there's a flush draw out, so I raise pot, like I have an overpair, then I show. This exact scenario played out earlier, except, earlier, I didn't show. Right after this hand, someone tried to bluff him again, and he called a big raise on the flop, and a big all-in raise on the turn with 3rd button (6s). I had seen villain bet into each and every pot he was in. We had some history, and he was currently paying off with one pair hands on 4th and 5th street (rather, people were trying to bluff him, but were unsuccessful).

Anyways, I limp UTG with 88, Villain calls, folded to bb, who checks. Blinds are (1500/3000)

Flop: 8 4 3 rainbow

checked to villain, who bets 4k, bb folds, I checkcall

Turn: T of spades, putting two spades on the board.

I check, villain bets 8k, I checkraise to 24k, villain calls

River: 7, no possible flush

I bet 28k, he raises all-in to 35k, I call.


I won't insult your intelligence. Of course, I lost. But do you guys raise more on the turn, when he's already lead the flop? It's not like he's semibluffing a backdoor draw on the flop.

Does anyone checkraise more on turn, and, if you do, why?
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