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Old 10-08-2005, 04:06 AM
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Default NL 1-2 JJ/KK vs preflop MANIAC

Hi all,

I want to discuss a rare situation that happened to me last night. I was playing 1-2 NL, and a very bad player enters the table. He is sitting on my left in a 5 handed game. About 25-30 pts of the hands - often when it is unraised to him - he raises to between 20 and 30 dollars. Of course, this gives the rest of us an edge.

During the session, it is also discovered that he often likes to call down re-raises. He has been calling an all-in re-raise (to about 100 dollars) with A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] - and lost. He has still got 150 dollars in his stack.

I therefore limp when i recieve J [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] from the dealer. As usual he raises to 20. I go all-in. I did the exact same play K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. What do you think about it?

I have to add that this player seems to be more reasonable postflop. He is not giving away the same amounts of money then. At least he cools down after a pot-sized bet.

With which range of hands do you guys advice the limp-reraise bet? Can this be played in a different way? Once in a while I meet this type of player (with maniac preflop raises) and i find it a bit tricky to play "group 2-hands" like A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] or 8 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 8 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] against them.
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