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Old 09-14-2005, 01:05 PM
etgryphon etgryphon is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2004
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Default Re: NO gun confiscation

[ QUOTE ]
An argument can be made that the wording of the amendment indicates that the right of the people to bear arms only applies insofar as the militia is concerned. Otherwise, the founders, who were very careful about their choices of words, would just have said, "the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." without the qualifying clause.

[/ QUOTE ]

Here we go again...

So now what constitues the "militia"? Who is in the "militia"? It is like saying, "In order to keep my feet clean, my right to wear shoes shall not be infringed" Wearing shoes doesn't only mean clean feet it can mean a lot of things, but maybe CHIEF of those means is to keep my feet clean. And any law that would infringe on my ability to wear shoes may in fact infringe on my ability to keep my feet clean. So all laws preventing my ability to wear shoes must be prevented.

Same thing in the 2nd Amendment.

As I stated in my other post. The 2nd Amendment will not apply here until the 14th Amendement is violated. And that can't be violated until the State refuses to uphold their own constitution.

-Gryph
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