Verbally binding?

[Lawrence Ng]

Here's something that came up a little while ago in a live 10/20 NL game. I was not involved in the hand but there was some heated discussion over it.

Two players were in the hand. Player A had $3000 and Player B had $5000. Player A had some black chips, but mostly green chips and Player B had almost all green chips.

On the river, Player A shoves all-in for about $2000. Player B thinks for a little and verbally declares, "yeah, I call"

Player A then turns over a set. Player B mucks his hand.

The dealer is then counting up Player A's stack which actually worked out to $2055. The dealer then informs Player B that he needs to give $2055.

Player B looks at the dealer and says, "I never called him."

It was very clear that Player B verbally declared a call on the river, but he had made no motion to shove any chips prior to the showing of hands.

The pit was called over of course and made a ruling.

What do you think the correct ruling should be here?

Lawrence