Question on cold calling preflop

[ArchAngel71857]

In Hold 'Em Poker , Sklansky writes:
"Any hand that can call a raise cold is strong enough to raise with. This usually applies to after the flop also, and in fact, to all poker games. . . . If his hand wasn't strong enough to raise with, it probably was not good enough to call a raise cold."

Yet, the next paragraph states " even in later position, you must have a very good hand to call a raise cold. It can be jsut a trifle bit worse however than those hand necessary to call in middle positions, . . . Also if there have been many cold callers you can call a raise cold with hands you prefer against many opponents."

First, I feel from the first statement that is never correct to cold call, either reraise or fold. Or does he mean, only cold call a bet with a hand that you would have raised with if no one raised.

Second, he tells when to cold call in late position, which i thought he discouraged in the first place. (all of this takes place on p. 43 of the 1997 edition). So which is it?

the reason I ask this is that frequently I have a hand on the button or CO that I am planning to raise with (AJs, ATs, KQs, etc.) and someone will raise. I will go ahead and cold call, keeping in mind these passages, and the way it works out there is never any detectable pattern to whether that was right or not based on the hands. Should I be cold-calling with these hands? or should I be folding them if I can't reraise them. i know of the AQ test in the Feeney book, but i don't play at a limit where this thinking is advantageous. if i play with people who raise UTG with Axs, then I am not folding AJs. Any thoughts?

-AA