A fun (hopefully) gambler's ruin question

[DoomSlice]

How much more money (relatively speaking) would you need to have to ensure a >50% chance to win money if you went all in every time and were called every time your opponent held a 2% advantage over you (51% chance to win) and folded with everything less?

Now to complicate things, how much would you need to have if he had to have a 20% advantage over you (60% chance to win) in order to call?

Assume Player B knows nothing about Player A's cards.

Ex. Player A pushes all in with XXXXX, Player B calls $100 with Q8 (or some hand that holds a 2% advantage over a random hand)

Now factor in the blinds (.5/1) ... and stipulate that Player B only has his initial $100 to play with, and I have now confused myself.

Happy calculating!