The Jackpot that almost was

[Thythe]

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Now I get it.

Anyways... it would count for the opponent using two whole cards? Is it because he can technically choose which of the two nines he wants to play?

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Unless I misunderstood your reply, No you don't get it.

The OP has to have both of his hole cards play and He can't beat the nine on the board. His eight doesn't play so the hand doesn't qualify for a bad beat jackpot hand.

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Yeah I think pshreck is saying that on a board of AAA9x a hand of pocket nines only has one 9 playing, though you could possibly say that you are using your two 9s and not the board 9.