More Debatable Instructional Material

[Rushmore]

Linking, because copying wouldn't copy the tables:

http://www.pokerpages.com/articles/a...s/samuel40.htm

So, then, when you hold JJ, and the flop comes TT2, and the guy moves in on you, he never holds a pair under tens? The gist seems to be that if there are no obvious draws, then the guy has to have you beat or be holding exactly AK (the only hand your jacks can beat, apparently).

Is there really anyone who believes this in the Poker World of 2005? Wouldn't it be great if poker really were this simple?