Marginal hand #2 Play or no play

[grjr]

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I assumed you would call preflop if the pot wasn't raised. Was that wrong to assume?

The example I gave was what more often than not happens when you DO hit the flop. Naturally, if you miss the flop you fold or check.

I included all my bets to show the pot size then deducted what I put in to show the profit.

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1) This is an easy preflop call with no raise, easy fold in the given situation.
2) Your claim is false. The 50% number was an overestimate (to be generous to your position). 33% turns out to be a better choice.



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I'm not following you here. What claim did I make that is false?

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"More often than not" is the false claim. It's more like "half as often as not".

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I guess I didn't express that well. The "more often than not" meant that that's usually what happens when you actually do hit the flop. Not that you actually hit the flop "more often than not". Does that make sense now?