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This one should be a breeze, but for some reason, I'm having trouble with it.
What are the odds of being dealt the same card (rank and suit) as one of your hole cards in two consecutive hands of holdem. I figured that it was 1-[(1/52*1/51)*(1/52*1/51)] to get the percentage and then odds = (1/%)-1 Is this correct or am I missing something? Thanks, Dov |
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