Roulette Probability Question

[shummie]

Say you sit down at the wheel and agree to bet $1 38 times on the same number.

Given 0 and 00, Roulette pays 35-1 on a single number bet and you have a 1/38 shot of hitting your number each spin. So after 38 spins, you will on average have $36.

After 38 spins, which is more likely?

(a) You have more than $36.
(b) You have less than $36 (0 dollars).
(c) You are as likely to have 0 dollars as more than $36.

My gut says c. Can anyone confirm?

- Jason