total unfluffableness

[Tommy Angelo]

skp,

Extremely excellent post you wrote.

"Suppose your opponent made a 50 cent all in bet on the river. Would you have called?"

Yes. Getting 1600-1 one I would call because I would be getting the right odds that he might have misread his hand.

"If the answer is "yes", it simply means that the decision to call is always about pot odds in conjunction with your assessment of your chances of holding the best hand and that you were not 100% sure that you had the worse hand."

Correct. But there can in theory then exist a degree of sureness, that is less than 100%, that can be reasonably rounded to 100% for the sake of decision-making, since the pot will pretty much never lay more that 40-1. For instance, the only way that the difference between being 99.995%-sure and being 99.996%-sure can effect my actual wager is if you artificially alter the pot odds in a way that brings that last decimal place into consideration.

Good point though. There is always a price.


Tommy