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Re: Classic Type Game Theory Problem
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[ QUOTE ] "Uniform distribution on [0,1]" is standard terminology for Lebesgue measure. And if m is Lebesgue measure, then m([0,1])=1 and m({x})=0 for all x. The statement of the problem makes perfect sense and the existence of the uniform distribution on [a,b] is proven in any first-year graduate real analysis course, and some undergraduate ones. [/ QUOTE ] You're joking, right? [/ QUOTE ] No. It's standard terminology. Mathworld: uniform distribution |
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