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Raising from the dealer position.
Did I figure this out correctly. Assume that three people are dealt two cards from three completely different decks. They can be dealt exactly the same hand. Now I will rank each two card hand all 1326 combo's from high to low. It is unimportant to me what the ranking system is. Suppose I have two cards that are exactly at the 40th percentile.
Is the probability that I have the best hand. 1-((2*.40)-(.4*.4)) = .36 or 36 percent of the time I have the best hand. Thanks, Cobra |
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