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#1
07-23-2005, 07:23 PM
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Bellagio Ruling Question
An interesting situation came up when I was playing the 2/5 NL at the Bellagio last night. The rules of the game are that you have to buyin for $200 and you can buy another $200 if you go under $100. I was at about $95, so I took 2 black chips from my pocket and put them on the table inbetween hands.
The next hand, I raised preflop and on the flop. Another player looked at my seemingly small stack (no, I wasn't hiding the blacks, they were on top of my reds) and said "I put you all in," and put a stack of about $125 out. I explained to him that I had him covered and showed him my black chips. He said he couldn't see them and he took his money and said "Ok, then I raise you $50 more." Because I didn't care and was going to muck anyway, I didn't say anything, but what is the ruling in that situation? Does he have to be all in? 
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#2
07-23-2005, 07:37 PM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
Interesting question. Most of the time when a player rebuys, he gets his chips from the dealer, and the other players can take note of that, and know you have more chips. If you just took them out of your pocket, and didn't inform the dealer, i'm not sure if you chips are in play. However, it is a player's responsibility to be aware of the others chip stacks. Maybe a dealer could give you a ruling on this one.
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#3
07-24-2005, 02:47 AM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
[ QUOTE ]
Interesting question. Most of the time when a player rebuys, he gets his chips from the dealer, and the other players can take note of that, and know you have more chips. If you just took them out of your pocket, and didn't inform the dealer, i'm not sure if you chips are in play. However, it is a player's responsibility to be aware of the others chip stacks. Maybe a dealer could give you a ruling on this one. [/ QUOTE ] in 90% of casinos his chips only have to be on the table before the hand is dealt to be considered to be in play... same ruling applies to cash if it is on the table before the deal, it can be used to buy chips or be used as chips during the hand. some may consider your move an angle-shoot although you clearly had no intentions of doing so. i say he is all-in.
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#6
07-23-2005, 08:59 PM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
I didn't inform the dealer, but I wasn't being deceptive either. My chips are definetly in play because I am allowed to add chips inbetween hands. The question isn't wether or not the chips count, but if the other player has to be all in when he verbally said "I put you all in" with less chips than I had.
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#7
07-23-2005, 11:26 PM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
[ QUOTE ]
but if the other player has to be all in when he verbally said "I put you all in" with less chips than I had. [/ QUOTE ] It is clear that he does not understand the size of your stack. In a case of a gross misunderstanding a player can correct their action if nobody has acted on their error.
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#8
07-24-2005, 01:43 AM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] but if the other player has to be all in when he verbally said "I put you all in" with less chips than I had. [/ QUOTE ] It is clear that he does not understand the size of your stack. In a case of a gross misunderstanding a player can correct their action if nobody has acted on their error. 000 [/ QUOTE ] i would agree here - anybody have a similar situation enforced in a cardroom??
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#9
07-24-2005, 01:58 AM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
I have worked a few places on the floor and was quoting what I have ruled.
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#10
07-23-2005, 11:27 PM
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Re: Bellagio Ruling Question
IF your chips are in play, I think the other player is all in.
I'm not sure whether your chips are in play if you haven't informed the dealer. The real problem is that someone tries to sneak in chips when they aren't below the rebuy level (whethe intentionally or through error).
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