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I have the basic numbers:
An underpair (pre-flop) will beat an overpair a little less that 19%. I will flop a set with a pocket pair 11.8% of the time. What I am lost on is the implied odds. What I am hoping someone can explain to me is: In order to profitably play for set value (in NL), there must be A in the pot, Villain must have a stack of B, and Hero's stack must be C. An explanation of how this differs heads-up and multiway would be helpful as well. Thanks in advance. |
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