Question On PLNLP Hand Example (x-post)

[IggyWH]

I posted this in the Books and Software forum but it might be better off here as I'm talking strategy :

On p.79 of Pot-Limit & No-Limit Poker, there's a hand example that I have a question about. For background, you're supposed to assume the blinds are $15/$25 NL, everyone has a couple grand and the table is 9-handed. The example reads like this :

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(8) You Hold A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] - 10[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. The flop comes up 10[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] - 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] - 3[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. Three of you stayed for the flop in an unraised pot, so there is about one hundred dollars in the pot. The first player bets $100, the second player folds and you call. On fourth street comes the 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], which makes you a four-flush. Your opponent bets $250. You call, making $800 now in the pot. The last card is the pleasant J[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], giving you the nut flush. Your opponent checks. How much do you bet?

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Answer--- $1000(10) $800(8) $500(5)

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For those of you who haven't read the book, he assigns point values to his answers. (10) means that's the correct play you should make, (8) seems to mean a great alternative but not what the author would do and (5) seems to be about and average play to make.

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Explanation --- I think in these situations the best thing to do is overbet the pot. An even grand looks like a good figure. When a backdoor flush gets completed on the last card, and you either have the flush, or have nothing and wish to bluff, the right thing to do is overbet the pot. This makes it crystal clear that you are representing a flush, and it shouldn't make any difference to the opponent whether he has one pair, two pair a set or even a straight. Either you have him beaten by holding a flush or you busted out and are bluffing. At least there is no misunderstanding about what you are representing

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This to me makes absolutely no sense at all. The only time I could see making a 1.25x pot bet in this situation is if you're going to be playing with this person for a very long time, you know they're a good player and will remember this play and in turn use that to your advantage if you have a hand like this in the future and don't hit the backdoor nut flush. All of which I see this scenario a very rare circumstance and just completely not worth it.

You called the guys pot bet after the flop and then called another about pot-size bet on the turn, getting 2:1 odds on both calls. Unless he pegs you for a fish, he's got to believe you have something and weren't chasing down a flush. To me, a big bet here is just making his fold a lot easier to make.

When I read this, I thought of a bet around $300. I figured it was a good enough bet that would make you hitting the nut flush worthy and sweeten your win but also not too big for him to call as he's getting around 3.5:1 to call. When I saw the "answers" though, I was shocked.

Is my thinking wrong here? Should I be looking at this another way?