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Jekyll and Hyde with top set
So, here's a hand I was involved in last night. I'll ask questions at the end and share results later. I didn't have any notes or any read on the opponent, so I considered him the average; that is, a fairly tight 'stars $1/$2 NL player (by the way, the converter, which I am using for the first time, said it was $1 BB. I guess it misread the $1/$2 at the top of the hand history).
PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $2 BB (9 handed) saw flop|<font color="C00000">saw showdown</font> <font color="C00000">MP2 ($281.40)</font> MP3 ($86.25) CO ($37.30) <font color="C00000">Hero ($201.10)</font> SB ($222) BB ($181.90) UTG ($805.15) UTG+1 ($145.05) MP1 ($242.25) Preflop: Hero is Button with K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. <font color="666666">1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls $2, <font color="666666">1 fold</font>, <font color="CC3333">MP2 raises to $6</font>, <font color="666666">2 folds</font>, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to $20</font>, <font color="666666">2 folds</font>, UTG+1 folds, MP2 calls $14. Flop: ($45) 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], K[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 9[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="blue">(2 players)</font> MP2 checks, <font color="CC3333">Hero bets $22</font>, MP2 calls $22. Turn: ($89) J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] <font color="blue">(2 players)</font> MP2 checks, <font color="CC3333">Hero bets $48</font>, <font color="CC3333">MP2 raises to $96</font>, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to $159.1</font>, MP2 calls $63.10. River: ($407.20) 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="blue">(2 players)</font> Final Pot: $407.20 <font color="green">Main Pot: $407.20, between MP2 and Hero.</font> My thought process was basically this: Preflop: Reraise to get the limper out and find out what the raiser really has. And also because I have KK, and I figure to be best. If he has aces, then he'll pop me back, and if he just calls, he probably doesn't have aces. Flop: Now I really hope he has aces. But since he only called the preflop raise, I put him on a decent size pocket pair like QQ, JJ, TT, 99. Or also AK, AQ, or KQ, especially with two spades in his hand. So after he checks, I bet small (1/2 the pot) hoping that he'd try to push me off the pot with a raise, or hoping he'd call with top pair. In retrospect, I don't think this was the right play. Should I have bet bigger to make it more wrong for him to draw to a flush? Turn: My first thought is "it's not a spade!" So I happily put another 1/2 pot size bet out there; if he has two spades, he's not getting odds to draw to one (less than 3:1 pot odds, 4.15:1 against hitting on the river, if memory serves), but it may be tempting enough for him to think he's getting the right odds. Should I have bet bigger here? To my surprise, he checkraises me. "Sweet," I think, "he just hit a set of jacks, or he was slowplaying a set of 9s, and now's my time to bust him." So I go into Mr. Hyde mode and push all in. My question: do you think a mere call is more appropriate? If he had the one made hand that had me beat (i.e. a straight with QT), a call would've allowed me to conserve chips and then only bet (or call a large raise) on the river if I filled up. In my mind, a call is just too weak of a play there, and out of the hands I put him on, he would certainly call a huge reraise with a lot of weaker ones (lower sets, TPTK) or fold (or perhaps call even call with) bad drawing hands (straight or flush draws). Even though a checkraise screams strength, I can't put him on the only hand that has me beat, QT. He wouldn't call a $20 preflop raise with that, nor would he call with a gutshot. So at this point, I had him on JJ, 99, or a checkraise semibluff with a spade draw. River: no thoughts except "damn, a nonpairing spade." Final questions: What do you think he had? How would you have played top set here? Thanks. |
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