TOP question re antes

I had a question about applying the final paragraph of the "Small antes" section of Chapter 4 of TOP (starts on p. 33 in my edition) concerning loose play in small ante games with small inital bets.

(The game that is described here -- "a $3-$6 game ... with a tiny dime ante ... the first bet is only 50 cents" -- sounds like it has to be a stud game of some sort, right? I don't recall ever hearing of a hold 'em game with a betting structure where this description makes sense.)

So, anyway, I was wondering how to apply the principle described in this paragraph -- that a game where the first round of betting is cheap can be played relatively loosely even with small ante due to implied odds -- to a game like hold 'em which uses blinds to start the pot. My guess would be that most of the time the principle does not apply, especially in LHE. However, there is one situation where I'm curious as to whether it is a meaningful approach.

In the NL $10 (.05/.10 blinds) tables at Pacific, it is common that almost no one at the table will raise preflop. In other words, hands where the preflop round of betting consists of 6-7 players limping in are quite common.

This seems to me like it could be another situation where the implied odds allow for fairly loose standards for starting hands (many of which would just be played fit-or-fold on the flop). Just blend in with the herd of limpers.

Am I applying Sklansky's general idea correctly here? Or too naively? Are there wrinkles to no-limit games that require a completely different line of thinking? (Or perhaps this is reasonable line of thinking but is dangerous for a relatively inexperienced player to implement?)

I'm pretty new to all this. I'm just trying to find if I'm thinking straight -- not trying to defend a pet theory.