BCE/CE vs BC/AD

My atheist communist professors are trying to push this on us. Theyve outlawed BC and AD and replaced them with BCE (Before Common Era) and CE (Common Era). Rather than risk my grade by asking this in class, I figure I would ask for 2+2 interpretations-

What separates the "Common Era" from "Before Common Era"? Is the "Before Common Era" supposedly uncommon? What makes the "Common Era" common?

It's took me about ten minutes (no BS) to get over anger/outrage/incredulity. I wanted to make sure I correctly remembered the Latin that BC and AD represented so I did the google thingie. This is the first page listed and the only one I checked.

<ul type="square"> BC AD
[/list]
I'm now amazed. I didn't read all of the page but my impression right now is, this is yet another piece of PC Crap and your professor(s) need their nuts kicked!

[img]/images/graemlins/mad.gif[/img]

Wow, just... wow. Look at this passage from that link you posted:

[ QUOTE ]
(Wikipedia) states that the new notation is used by "Many non-Christians or secular persons." However, we suspect that the majority of users are actually Christians who want a notation that does not offend or distress persons of other religions.

[/ QUOTE ]

Just...wow.