#1
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Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
Empire 200NL full ring. Player A (29/6/4.5 after 34 hands) has $108, Player B (56/8/0 after 36 hands) has $97 and I have them both covered.
I get A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] in EMP UTG calls, 1 fold, I raise to $8. Player A calls. Player B calls. 5 folds and UTG calls. Flop (4 players) is T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 4 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] UTG checks, I bet $33. Player A calls. Player B pushes. UTG folds. I push. Reasonable or should I have just let it go? |
#2
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
Being laid 2:1 against a superLAG with aces is a +EV call. You're probably coinflipping at worst here.
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#3
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
I'm not loving it, but I think you're Ok here a decent amount of the time. If it was player A pushing, then I may lay the hand down, but this all depends on previous reads as well.
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#4
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
Is that 0 his flop agression? Because if so that changes this a lot. You are getting rediculously good odds though, so against two pair this looks fine.
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#5
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
[ QUOTE ]
Is that 0 his flop agression? Because if so that changes this a lot. [/ QUOTE ] Not in 36 hands, it doesn't. |
#6
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
he didnt have JdKd did he?
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#7
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Results
Player A had TT
Player B had Q2d B took it on the river with a flush. |
#8
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] Is that 0 his flop agression? Because if so that changes this a lot. [/ QUOTE ] Not in 36 hands, it doesn't. [/ QUOTE ] If he's VPIP 56, that means he's seen 18+ hands. Never once betting or raising in 18 hands. What does that tell you? |
#9
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] [ QUOTE ] Is that 0 his flop agression? Because if so that changes this a lot. [/ QUOTE ] Not in 36 hands, it doesn't. [/ QUOTE ] If he's VPIP 56, that means he's seen 18+ hands. Never once betting or raising in 18 hands. What does that tell you? [/ QUOTE ] No that can be misleading. He may have bet all 18 hands and never once called. Since 18/0 = 0, that is what will show up as the aggression factor. You need at least one call in there to get an agression factor > 0. |
#10
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Re: Should I bother calling this flop all-in w/ AA?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] [ QUOTE ] [ QUOTE ] Is that 0 his flop agression? Because if so that changes this a lot. [/ QUOTE ] Not in 36 hands, it doesn't. [/ QUOTE ] If he's VPIP 56, that means he's seen 18+ hands. Never once betting or raising in 18 hands. What does that tell you? [/ QUOTE ] No that can be misleading. He may have bet all 18 hands and never once called. Since 18/0 = 0, that is what will show up as the aggression factor. You need at least one call in there to get an agression factor > 0. [/ QUOTE ] And which do you think is more likely? |
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