question about the under-raise.

mike3076 · #1 02-10-2005, 11:16 AM

i hope someone can clear this up for me.
in no-limit poker,when there was a bet or for $100 ,then someone raises ,for a total of $120,and is all- in.
it is cosidered a under raise ,and you can only call or fold,you can not re raise at this point.
i understand that this is because the all in player had less than 50%of the $100 bet,($20).
if he had raised all in with say,-51% of the $100 they could re-raise his all in bet.
MY QUESTION IS -WHY IS THIS RULE IN EFFECT?
WHAT PURPOSE DOES THIS RULE SERVE?
i appreciate any body who knows the answer to this to help me out..

AZK · #2 02-10-2005, 11:59 AM

4 players

A makes it 100
B raises all in to 120
C can either reraise or call, but A CANNOT reraise, he can only call because it wasn't a full bet.

This is done because if A can reraise, he could just make it 1000 to go after everyone calls and trap C,D,E etc...picking up a ton of dead money and getting great odds on his hand versus B. Make sense?

Every casino has their own rules, I've seen it where you can only reraise if it's a full bet, others where if it's 50%...

mike3076 · #3 02-10-2005, 12:09 PM

yes, thank-you.
basically he(player A) coud re raise everyone out-pick dead money from up c,d,e and now only face b (who can not win any of the other dead money.(knda like a freeroll for A.)

mgsimpleton · #4 02-10-2005, 03:58 PM

well B can still win all the money but basically if A has a great hand, he would never bet 120, always 100, hoping B will go all in so he can collect some calls then go all in himself. Without this rule, A's bet of 120 instead of 100 if he things B has a decent hand would be a horrible decision.