QJ argument

A friend and I are having a small argument over this. I said that if I have QJ against 2 opponents, that there is the following chance that one of them has an A or a K.

(42/50)*(41/49)*(40/48)*(39/47)=48.6% or 51.4% that someone will have an A or a K.

However, he thinks it's much lower. Are my calculations correct?

[ohnonotthat]

Your calculations are perfect.

Remember though that even if an Ace AND a King flop the chance of one of these two opponents having flopped a pair goes down and is now 43.22%

1 - (41/47 x 40/46 x 39/45 x 38/44) x 100

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