Did I play this hand correctly?

Here is the situation I was in at a 30 player $100 buy-in tournament. Top 5 finishers are in the money. 6 players are at the final table. Since this was a home tourney, bear with the lack of formatting...

Blinds are 25/50.
Total Chips in Play = 3000.
Hero is UTG with A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] and ~700 chips. Hero is #3 in chips.

Hero raises to 100. All fold to BB (~800 chips & #2 in chips) who calls. BB had been playing relatively tight.
Flop: K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], J [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], 5 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
BB bets All-In.
My question: Should Hero call?



Result:
Hero puts BB on KQ. Hero calls. BB shows KJ.
Hero loses, makes no money and stews about it.

Follow-up question: Should Hero just raise All-In pre-flop?

You want to raise at least 3X the BB. Since some people are kind of short on chips, I might just go all in and hope that a short stack calls me with a small PP hoping I have AK.

Did you have any reads on BB?...I dont think you want to raise all in preflop usually here...you want action though...altho in general i would raise more than 2x BB here UTG...or limp if table is active and reraise if someone raises...but with no reads at all i'd probably call the flop...expecting him to show a K...but i dont know why he would raise all in with a great hand since he would probably want action...but all of these decisions depend on reads and what the table has been like and your image and things like that

Answering your questions:

BB was fairly tight. I was playing tight/aggressive, so I only raised 2x BB to get a caller. Based on my play, I thought if I raised any more, everyone would fold. My previous raises had been significantly higher. In hindsight, the BB may have even thought that a 2xBB raise from me was more like a limp.

I understand the pre-flop error, but how does being 1 out of the money impact the decision on calling the all-in bet?

it really depends on the payout structure...if it is incredibly top heavy with a significant portion going to 1st and 2nd and not so much going to 4th and 5th...then I am more willing to take chances on the bubble in order to get into that money, but if it is more evenly distributed among the top 5, then i might be more willing to be a little more conservative...but in general, a lot of players tend to get tight around the bubble in order to get in the money, but to accumulate more chips, you want to loosen up a little bit because they are playing so tight...but still, this would be a hard laydown for me

[Exitonly]

- Don't minraise
- Don't post the results, or if you do, put them in white.
- i'm going broke here everytime i don't suckout.

yes, the chipstacks are very small with the blinds like that. The 2nd highest chipleader only has an effective M of a little less than 8. I wouldnt go all in here, rather i would in fact limp, hoping the weakness entices someone to come over the top. might work, or if not you still have a pair of aces, can asses on the flop.

[el_dusto]

[ QUOTE ]
I understand the pre-flop error, but how does being 1 out of the money impact the decision on calling the all-in bet?

[/ QUOTE ]

In this situation, it just means that you lose all your chips instead of him losing all his. You made the right move after the flop; you're beating most hands, and I will go broke every time this happens to me.

That being said... if I had AJ, QJ, or a K with a bad kicker, and the action was the same, I would be more likely to fold due to the bubble. There are times when I'll take it to the paint with 2PTK or TPLK, but not when it makes me bust the bubble to be wrong.

correction, a little more than 7 effective m.

Of course you should call. Pre flop you should not min raise. You give the blinds good odds to call with a lot of hands (OK you don't mind with such a good hand), but as a result their range is wider making it harder to work out their likely holdings.