Hello Hold'em players! 2 Hold'em questions...

SittingBull · #1 01-07-2003, 06:32 PM

U have 78(suited)
U KNOW your single opponent has K9o .
The flop is 7 K 2 (R) U have no backdoor draw. [img]/forums/images/icons/laugh.gif[/img]
If your opponent bets 1/2 BB on the flop and the pot size is 5BB,would U call his bet??

If the turn board is 7 K 2 3 and U have no flush draw,would U continue to fish if the pot were large enough if U did not improve on the turn?? If so ,how large(in turns of BB's) must the pot be for U to call 1 BB?? Give min pot size in BB units.
Thanks
Sitting Bull

PokerPrince · #2 01-07-2003, 06:41 PM

1.Yes.

2.The pot would have to be offering 8:1 for a call to be correct.

PokerPrince

SittingBull · #3 01-07-2003, 07:41 PM

Kevin J · #4 01-07-2003, 08:30 PM

If your opponent bets 1/2 BB on the flop and the pot size is 5BB,would U call his bet??

Not using EXACT math, you are getting 10 to 1 odds and are aproximately an 8 to 1 dog to make two pair or better on the next card. You also figure to collect more bets from him when you hit (implied odds). You have a call, but don't forget your opponent will re-draw out on you sometimes.

If the turn board is 7 K 2 3 and U have no flush draw,would U continue to fish if the pot were large enough if U did not improve on the turn?? If so ,how large(in turns of BB's) must the pot be for U to call 1 BB?? Give min pot size in BB units.

Again, you need IMPLIED odds of aprox. 8 to 1. Suppose there are 6 bets in the pot. If you KNEW you could collect two more bets on the river when you hit, I suppose you can call, but why? This requires presumption on your part and if you are wrong, you've made a poor call. This seems to be a waste of time, at best. You make money in poker by putting yourself in situations where your expectations are profitable. not break-even, or maybe break-even.

If there were 7 bets in the pot, and you knew you would collect a total of 9 on an 8 to1 shot, it now becomes worth it. IMO-

Kevin J · #5 01-07-2003, 08:42 PM

2.The pot would have to be offering 8:1 for a call to be correct.

Not to nit, but the pot would have to be offering IMPLIED odds of 8:1. This is different than pot odds, because it means you would sometimes still call even if your pot odds were less than 8:1.

SittingBull · #6 01-07-2003, 09:15 PM

PokerPrince have added a valuable piece of information to my knowledge.
These questions have been haunting me for a few days.
Now I can play and sleep in peace(LOL!)
I hope that both U and PokerPrince have a very successful and happy New Year.
Happy pokering,
Sitting Bull