I don't get this

[smartalecc5]

I ran a pokerstove calculation on for the following 3hands.

KcJc
Js4s
AhKd

The J4s had a higher percentage of winning than then KJc. Why is that??

[Rev. Good Will]

beats me
equity (%) win (%) / tie (%)

Hand 1: 21.8163 % [ 00.21 00.01 ] { KcJc }
Hand 2: 24.9561 % [ 00.24 00.01 ] { Js4s }
Hand 3: 53.2276 % [ 00.53 00.00 ] { AhKd }

[Siegmund]

KJ is dominated by AK, and J4 by KJ. Both hands only win when the lower card pairs and the other player's cards don't (plus an assortment of runner-runner parlays.)

The difference is that there are *two* jacks left to make KJ a winner, but *three* fours left.