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#1
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Here's a hand I thought was interesting because a very well-respected person played it:
Ultimate Bet $10-25 $2500NL (8 handed) Preflop ($35): Two folds, well-respected MP ($2661) raises to $85 with 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], Two folds, button ($2769) reraises to $290. Blinds fold, well-respected MP calls $290!?!?. At this point, the rest of the hand is irrelevant. Can it be proper to make this call of the reraise with stacks so shallow and out of position? As for the results: The flop comes 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 3[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] for the double gutter and a flush draw. MP check-raises button's flop bet all-in, and fails to improve despite having over 56% flop equity over AA with no [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. Garland |
#2
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is he calling $290 or $205?
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#3
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Not sure I like it. I mean, he gets just about the dream flop here, and still loses over 40% of the time. That's the problem with implied odds and no position - you have to factor in that sometimes you lose you're stack.
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