[rid.br]

Let's say that you know ur opponent has AA, KK, QQ or JJ.
You have AA. The game is NL holdem.

The flop comes: Q x x
And there is a lot of action.

I was thinking. There are 6 combinations of him having KK. And 3 combinations of him having QQ.

My question is: The chance of him having KK is just 2 times bigger than him having QQ ? Like 2-1 ??? Because i know the odds of someone flopping a set are like 7.5-1 and it seems weird that the chance of him having a set (after the flop)is just 1/2 the chance of having overpair (KK).

The same quesion applies for other boards, like: J x x
or: Q J x

Thank you in advance. And i'm sorry if this is a trivial question. But i'm really confused.