Re: Redefining Aggression - PokerAce Hud
Here's what I'm trying to accomplish. Basically, I'm turning aggression into a percentage. 0% would be the most passive play possible. 100% would be the most aggressive play possible.
Would this not be pretty accurate to define aggression?
I think we need to define what is aggressive and what is passive.
Betting = Aggressive
Raising = Aggressive
Check Raising = Aggressive
Calling = Passive
Check Calling = Passive
Check Folding = Passive
Check without Call/Fold = Neutral
After discussing things with my friend some more, we came up with this new calculation:
(times_bet + times_raised) / (times_bet + times_raised + times_called + times_folded)
Let's do an example. We'll ignore preflop play for now. This player is aggressive, so he check raises the flop, bets the turn, but check folds the river.
That's 1 bet, 1 raise, and 1 fold. Doing the formula:
(1 + 1) / (1 + 1 + 0 + 1) = 67%
If the player bets the river, then it's:
(2 + 1) / (2 + 1 + 0 + 0) = 100%
If the player calls the river, then it's:
(1 + 1) / (1 + 1 + 1 + 0) = 67%
Another example. A player check calls the flop, check calls the turn, and makes his flush so he check raises the river:
That's 2 calls and 1 raise. That would be:
(0 + 1) / (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 33%
If he bets the river, then it's:
(1 + 0) / (1 + 0 + 2 + 0) = 33%
If he misses and check folds the river, then it's:
(0 + 0) / (0 + 0 + 2 + 1) = 0% (no aggression at all)
Let's say we have a maniac who bets his flush the whole way. Bet the flop, bet the turn, bet the river.
That's 3 bets, nothing else:
(3 + 0) / (3 + 0 + 0 + 0) = 100% aggression.
So does this make sense or am I completely out of my mind?
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