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1. The same argument can be applied by the Jewish religion against ALL christianity."

But why is that a problem? BluffTHIS's point is in fact very valid. Even though it leads to this.

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Yes it is. But implied in his statement is the idea that unless the reformers agree, the original doctrine is more likely to be correct. Given that the Jewish religion predates and is the basis for Christianity, I was pointing out that his statement could lead to some silly conclusions (such as Jews being more correct than Catholics [img]/images/graemlins/grin.gif[/img]).