[jpg7n16]

Ok so I've been thinking about this a little. Game is limit Hold'Em:

The odds that after you flop a 4-flush that you will get your flush are: 35% according to HEFAP (probability chart in the back - 9 outs)... that gives you odds of 1.85714 to 1. (To calculate that you do (100-35)/(35)=65/35=1.85714, right?)

If there were only 2 people in the pot (let's say a 5/10 limit game). You could even be the small blind and complete giving $20 into the pot (the smallest it will ever be). You flop a 4-flush. You check, they bet. Now the bet to you is $10 for a $30 pot... 3 to 1 right? Even if I'm wrong and the odds are 2 to 1... that's still better than your 1.85714 to 1 so you should call.

Let's say that 2 other people came in with you. For the smallest starting pot possible, they were the blinds. You call from MP somewhere. (3 players * $10 = $30 pot) Flop comes and gives you a 4-flush. Small blind bets... big blind raises... bet is now $20 to you for a $60 pot ($30 preflop + $10 from SB + $20 from BB). Again here is your 3 to 1 (or 2 to 1 even) which is better than your 1.85714 to 1.

3 other people? $40 PF + $10 SB bet + $20 BB raise + $30 UTG reraise = $100. So $30 for a $100 pot = 3 1/3 to 1 ... again higher than our 1.85714 to 1. (and even higher than if you were head's up)

Heck let's try the family pot! Everyone calls at a 10 seated table! YAY! 10*10=$100 PF then theoretically(which I know can't happen)everone raised on the flop! ($100 + 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 + 50 + 60 + 70 + 80 + 90 + 100 = $650) $650 for a $100 bet. That is 6.5 to 1 which is still higher than the 1.85714 to 1 odds you need.

Am I right on this?? Cause that means if you EVER flop a 4-flush in a limit game, then it is always statistically correct to chase it no matter how many people raise. (If everyone checks then you don't even worry about it cause you get to chase for free so you don't care)

And then in NLHE... you and one other guy stay in PF at .25/.5 NLHE for $.50 each. ($1 pot) You flop a 4-flush... for you to not get proper odds to call, your opponent would need to bet at least 117% of the pot - in this case $1.17 for you to not call. ( Pot Size ~ (1+x), Bet Size ~ x, odss of making hand are (100-35)/35 : therefore the equation should be (1+x)/x = (100-35)/35 , solve for x and you get x = 1.16667)

Am I calculating something wrong in any of this, or is it really proper for you to call even with these crazy statistics?