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Scenario 1: Both players are perceptive and skillful and will play FTOP-correctly postflop. Whoever gets TPTK will bet and his opponent will compute pot odds and act accordingly. There are no implied odds because no one ever chases a made straight. There are no redraws to full houses.

Analyze the preflop play.

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I'm a little confused. I guess we're assuming that we can't tell anything from the cards we're dealt? What I mean is if we're dealt 32 preflop, we know we're the one who will flop the gutshot because 32 could never be TPTK.

If we're not allowed to see our cards until after the flop, then it doesn't matter because this would be a complete coin toss every time.

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Scenario 2: Exactly like scenario 1 except that Villain has a bit of gamble. He will always peel one card to try and make his straight. Other than this he plays properly.

Analyze the preflop play.

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Assuming the same deal (we can't see the cards preflop):

The idea here is to keep the pot as small as possible at either 0 or 1 bets. In other words, we check or we call. This allows our "gambling" opponent to make the biggest mistake on the flop by peeling when he has the gutter.


EDIT: Hopefully, I understood the question correctly.