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Old 11-03-2004, 11:07 AM
kalooki45 kalooki45 is offline
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Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: England via Alabama
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Default Re: Must moral law be divinely inspired?

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An example of an objective morality would be John Stuart Mill's "greatest good for the greatest number"

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In what sense would Mills be more objective? Because HE determines what is good, as opposed to God?
That would seem to me to be the ULTIMATE subjectivity.

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So who says that the creator's preferences matter more than mine? If the creator made that rule, it's circular and empty.

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I think you aren't taking into account what God says about Himself. He didn't "make" the rules---He IS the rules.

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if God prefers something because it is good -- then it was already good before God stated his preference, and the standard for what is good exists independent of God.)


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Nothing, in Judeo-Christian theology, pre-dates God. He is the beginning of all things. To say that anything existed before Him or apart from Him is a non-starter.
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